So when is a SUT really needed?

@nandric 

"So I agree with Faustuss that Luxman EQ 500 is overpriced."

I don't think I made that point at all! My post was a rebut to yours.

"The reason is: the higher amplifiaction  by MC phono-pres the higher distortions.

The ''old Lukatschek'' just produced the ''younger brother'' of Ortofon MC2000

called  BENZ EBONY  TR (TR for transfomer; output 0,1mV imedance 1 Ohm)..

Do members of Audiogon pretend to know better?"

I just used the test reports from Stereophile to show that tube and solid state can easily achieve signal to noise ratios that are easily commensurate with what is capable with vinyl and that less expensive products can achieve same with cartridges that would be priced to use with them. You could use one of the Luxmans with upper end Lyras for instance or use a $1000 Hana MC with a similarly priced Sutherland or something.

I would happily have one of the Luxmans and all the advantages it would bring sonically and it's sheer versatility if that's what I was looking for but my modestly priced Icon Audio works perfectly with my Hana MC. Just what I was looking for.

Knowing Lenz's equation does not per se mean you can avoid the issue it describes.  It only means you can quantify the Lenz effect.  Mr Palmer does that in the context of the quote and concludes it is not important.  I believe I took that quote out of the context of a discussion of the Lenz phenomenon among J Carr, W Palmer, and Dave Slagle, a few years ago. I don't remember whether Carr and Slagle agreed with Palmer.

Dear Lew,

After how many years (+65?) you don't understand the difference between

logic and grammar . Logic is science grammar is not. There are more than

5000 languages in the ''known universe'' but only one logic .

Grammar is for spoken languages. For our ears. But how does one reed and

write with his ears.? Your interest in ''definition of words '' is wrong assumption

while the logic state that from wrong assunptions (=premise) can't follow

true deductions. As Frege put it : ''the mening of words is their contriburion 

to the memsing of statments in which they are used''. 

Where does grammar explain that ''subject''  in a sentence is just ONE

VARIABLE ? Where the connective ''IS'' between Subject end Predicat?

Logic explains 4 different ''meaning'' of connctive ''is''. I use 4 different

langages , so to speak, daily: Serbo-Kroatian, German, Dutch and English

all with different grammars...those are prescriptions which are not 

true or false but can  be understod if one is fsmiliar with the ''culture''

in which they  are used. Otherwise ''cultural shocks'' can't be understoood.

@nandric 

After your last post, my apologies for any misunderstanding we may have had.

Please try any SUT with your system. And your ears will answer your question.