Technical question on phase inversion.


This past weekend, I replaced my solid state preamplifier with a tube preamp. What a difference! I really like the change in the sound but I'm confused by one thing. The MFA Magus B manual says this about the main outputs,  "NOTICE: The high-level stage of the Magus preamplifier is an inverting amplifier. Many audiophiles prefer to correct for this by reversing the speaker cables on BOTH speakers (+ to - and - to +)." So, now I'm confused! I have tried it both ways and they both sound good to me. I'm wondering if there is a rule of thumb about "inversion" that I'm not aware of. So far, I'm only listening to CD, if that helps. Don't get me started on how to correct for inversion when playing analog. That's my next adventure!
Ag insider logo xs@2xtonykay

Showing 1 response by almarg

The audible significance of inversion or non-inversion of polarity, aka "absolute phase," is controversial. In part because many recordings are comprised of a random mix of polarities for different instruments and/or singers. Consistent with Atmasphere’s comment, it is most likely to be significant on the relatively few recordings that were engineered using "purist" techniques, meaning just two or three microphones and minimal post-processing.

Interchanging + and - on both speakers (or on the corresponding output terminals of the amplifier) will of course compensate for the polarity inversion your preamp imposes on both your CD and vinyl sources. However if the CD player is also known to invert polarity (which would probably be mentioned in the measurements section of Stereophile’s review of the player, if they have reviewed it), and your phono stage does not, then you would not want to interchange + and - on the speakers. Instead you could make everything come out correctly by interchanging the cartridge connections for each channel (i.e., interchanging white with blue, and interchanging red with green).

Regards,
-- Al