Idiotic Vertical Biamping Question


I've read a couple of detailed articles on the various kinds of biamping.

I understand vertical biamping to be: amp1 uses left and right outputs to speaker1 (we'll say that's the right speaker); one channel to woofer and one to tweeter; and amp2 does the same, but to the left speaker.

We're assuming a two-way speaker.

Now, I assume that each amp still "thinks" it is sending full-range signals out of both channels. So for amp1, let's say the right output channel feeds the woofer while the left output channel feeds the tweeter. The amp is sending information meant for the left speaker to the tweeter of the right speaker. Same problem occurs in amp2 (but possibly with reversed content going to woofer instead of tweeter, depending on whether the channels are wired identically or in reverse of amp1).

It seems to me this would cause tremendous problems in imaging. So there *must* be something I'm missing; can anyone help me out?

Also, every article I've read discourages bridging stereo amps to make them monoblocks, though the reasons vary. What are your experiences with such a setup? I was specifically thinking of getting another McCormack DNA-.0.5 and having Steve convert both amps to monoblocks, thinking this would be the best performance I could get, but maybe that is not the case?

Thanks for the insight, all.

HC
aggielaw

Showing 3 responses by electroid

I tried vertical and horizontal bi-amp and preferred horizontal. My amps are CJ made in the same building as yours. Don't bridge. As to your scenario the amp doesn't know or care what it's sending in terms of L/R. It's up to you to put the correct signal into each input jack that you want to come out of the output.

ET
""
Sorry Arthur but Descartes proved you wrong a long time ago, "I think therefore I amp"!""

Why you!

You missed me! Nyuk nyuk nyuk!

ET
Nice post Aball.....I have heard those things and did try both ways and preferred horizontal for image.

ET