How can a 40 watt amp outshine a 140 watt amp


My query is; I see $6,000 integrated amplifiers with 40 watts per channel, how is this better than my Pionner Elite SC-35 @ 140 watts per channel, what am I going to hear different, with a, let's say Manley Labs - STINGRAY II? I obviously don't understand the basics involved and if someone could explain or point me in the right direction, I would greatly appreciate it.

I would like to set up a nice two channel analog system. I really can't afford the aforementioned Stingray, what is "out there" in the 2.5 grand range?
mystertee

Showing 1 response by swampwalker

I have an idea about what is going on w the Clark test. I am not a statistician but I do not think that you need 2 sets of 12 out of 12 correct answers to reject the null hypothesis that the 2 amplifiers sound the same. I would that that the chance of getting even one set of 12 100% correct is pretty low, esp. when you have audio memory/human perception issues. Its been a long time since I thought about/learned experimental design but I think what we are talking about here is the difference between a false positive (hearing a difference when there is none) and a false negative (not hearing a difference when there is one). One of them is called type 1 error and the other is type 2 error. I'll bet that if someone here knows a statistician or experimental design specialist, they could work out the numbers pretty easily. I'd be surprised if the ability to get 12/12 correct, twice in a row is pretty darn remote.