Simple Biamp question


I know there have been dozens of biamp threads, but my question is so simple that I'm sure someone can answer it instantaneously.
I have a preamp with 2 pairs of outputs and 2 identical stereo amps than cannot be bridged into mono status. So I wish to biamp my speakers (Allison 4s with biwire posts)
1. Can I vertically biamp with the left leads of both outputs going to one amp and the left speaker and vice versa with the right leads? I have heard from some Audio people that I cant do this. Why? Something to do with crossovers and imaging and soundstage....
2. Is it better to horizontally biamp witjh both amps sending single wires to lower frequencies and both amps sending single wires to upper frequencies?

I would prefer the verical, as it's neater and easier, but are therte drawbacks? Is there a reason both left and right outputs from the preamp cannot go into one amp and use it as a mono?

Amps : TAD 60
Prreamp: TAD 150 Signature

Thanks very much for your help.
springbok10
Have not tried it but either approach is valid. What I have heard over the years is that if you go "vertical" as in one stereo amp feeds the left speaker and the other the right channel you will get the benefits that are obtained by mono blocks which is the complete seperation of the channels at the amp stage of your system.

I defer to others who have spent time trying it both ways.
If my phrasing is misleading, let me clarify: (Vertical biamping):

Output A: L eft to Amp 1
Right to Amp 2

Output B: Left to Amp 1
Right to Amp 2

Amp 1 has 2 left input, Amp 2 has 2 right inputs

Is this doable/acceptab;e - likely to be a problem?
That will most likely work fine, and should give superior results to horizontal biamping, for the reason Jjrenman cited and perhaps also because it would make it possible to use shorter speaker cables.

The reasons I say "most likely," though, (and these reasons are equally applicable to the horizontal and vertical biamp configurations) are as follows:

1)Chances are that the two sets of output terminals on the preamp are simply wired together inside the rear panel of the preamp, rather than being driven by individual buffer stages. If so, the output stage of the preamp will see a load impedance equal to 1/2 of the input impedance of the power amp. I found a spec indicating that the output impedance of the preamp is "less than 600 ohms," but that is probably at mid-range frequencies and could be much higher at deep bass frequencies. And I couldn't find a spec on the input impedance of the power amp. Given that the power amp is tube based, I'd feel fairly confident that 1/2 of its input impedance will be sufficiently high in relation to the output impedance of the preamp to not result in sonic issues, but that can't be said for sure without having more complete specs.

2)Assuming that the two sets of output terminals on the preamp are not individually buffered, the output stage will be loaded by the sum of the capacitances of two sets of interconnects. That most likely won't cause any problems, but if the interconnect lengths are particularly long (e.g., in the vicinity of say 12 feet or more, each), choose cables having low capacitance per unit length (e.g., 25 pf/foot or less). A slight rolloff of the upper treble might result if the cables are long and have high capacitance per unit length.

Regards,
-- Al