At 30 watts of output, the amp will put out that same 30 watts into any freq for an even tonal balance.
No, that isn't correct, assuming the amp acts as a voltage source (as almost all solid state amps do, and as some tube amps do to a relatively loose approximation).
In the case of an amp having voltage source characteristics, i.e., very low output impedance, for a given input voltage to the amp it will provide an output **voltage** to the speaker that is essentially the same regardless of frequency, assuming the amp is operated within the limits of its voltage, current, power, and thermal capabilities. And that same voltage will result in more current and consequently more power being delivered into low impedances than into high impedances.
As you are probably aware power delivered into a resistive load equals voltage squared divided by resistance. It's somewhat more complicated than that when capacitive or inductive reactance is involved, but I'm putting that complication aside to try to clarify Ralph's point, which relates to delivery of power (as opposed to voltage) into the speaker. And which relates to frequency response flatness at the output of the speaker, not to frequency response flatness at the output of the amplifier.
Frequency response flatness at the output of the amplifier, on the other hand, is normally defined in terms of how the relation between amplifier output voltage (not power) and amplifier input voltage varies as a function of frequency. That characteristic will indeed be essentially flat in the case of a good quality voltage source amp, as long as the amp is operated within its capabilities. But that is not relevant to the point Ralph was making.