I've read with interest the preceeding posts. I'm confused on(at least) this one thing:
If paypal takes compensation from one party to a transaction but not another or the conveyer, is it(Paypal) more beholden to the party that paid its fee?
Does Paypal use escrow as a euphamism? What am I missing?
What does Paypal provide and to whom does it provide it for its 3 % skim off the top?
If paypal takes compensation from one party to a transaction but not another or the conveyer, is it(Paypal) more beholden to the party that paid its fee?
Does Paypal use escrow as a euphamism? What am I missing?
What does Paypal provide and to whom does it provide it for its 3 % skim off the top?