Biwiring and impedance


I know that wiring two speakers in parallel to one set of speaker outputs halves the impedance the amp sees. Correct?
So does biwiring a speaker have the same effect on the amp?
In other words, if I biwire my 8 ohm (nominal) speakers, will the amp "see" 4 ohms?
Thanks.
rubber

Showing 7 responses by kr4

Hold on, folks. It doesn't matter at all what the impedances of the hf and lf parts are and it doesn't matter whether you use single-biwires or double biwires or how many terminals there are on your amp.

If you connect everything to one amp, regardless of the wiring, the impedance load is the same as with single wiring.

Sheesh!

Kal
Really? What crossover configuration would have the HF present as a low impedance that is not seen when both HF/LF sections are connected?

I am not trying to be wise-guy but would like to know if such is possible.

Kal
OK, that is not too uncommon but the effect would be the same (if not worse) with the the woofer connected. Any woofer load would be in parallel with and, therefore, would lower the impedance even more.

Besides, the same amp is connected to both HF and LF, in parallel, even when biwired.

So, the issue has nothing to do with biwiring. It is just the usual question of whether an amp is stable with that load under any circumstances.

Kal
Sorry, Bob, I was not aiming at you. I am trying to see if Zieman has some reasons for his statement that "Buffered amps and throughput (Krell) amps can see a super low impedance from the high freq posts."

Kal
You keep saying the same thing but you still have not answered the question I keep asking. How is this any different from having the same amp drive the same speaker without biwiring? Without addressing this, your statements are not relevant to this thread.

Kal
OK. I understand. You raised a point that could be critical in some situations but it is not germane to the issue here.

Kal