Am I nuts? Biamping question...


Hi,
I'm new here and a bottom feeder in the world of high end audio (read as "poor musician") I am upgrading my studio. I have PMC FB1's (150W) I just purchased thru Audiogon. When I pulled my 1979 Roland spa-240 amp out of storage (I've been using active monitors: Event Tria) and hooked up the FB1's they sounded superb. Two days later one channel of the amp fried - I'm guessing deteriorated caps. So I started shopping. I am considering a pair of Hafler P7000's to set up a biamped system, but those amps are WAY overkill power-wise. Am I nuts to use such amps with these speakers?

The other option I am considering is using something more reasonable like P3000's in a vertical (pseudo) biamp setup. Do the differences between "true*" and "pseudo" biamping justify the use of the P7000's? I have never done "true" biamping before, only pseudo. The P3000's and the P7000's are the same price.

I know I'll need to make custom crossover cards for the P7000's - no biggie. The FB1's crossover is at 3k. I intend to set the low pass at about 3.5k for the woofers, and the high pass at about 2k for the tweeters.

I am trying my hand at budget mastering aimed at indie musicians. Any help is appreciated.
-jim
http://www.fixthatmix.com

* I know that "true" biamping involves removing the speaker crossovers - not something I'm interested in at this point. I believe my plan will yield the benefits of true biamping without screwing with the speaker design. Please tell me if I am wrong.
jimbo_9er

Showing 1 response by butsy

I believe the improvement of bi-amping in a speaker like yours would be minimal. Try it with one amp first and if it sounds great ,,leave it alone (for now)!