Accurate vs Musical


What is the basis for buying an "accurate" speaker over a "musical" one? I am very familiar with most audiophile jargon but this is one that confuses me. Musical to me means that the speakers convey the "air" or/and overtone of instruments.

"Accurate" on the other hand is what, the accuracy of a single note? If accurate does not convey the space of an instrument, how can it be defined as accurate? I can understand why an "accurate" speaker can be used in a recording studio or as a studio monitor but for casual listening/auditioning?

Thiel is an accurate speaker but Magnepan is more musical so which would truly be more faithful to the original source? Someone please clear this up for me. Thanks.
ebonyvette

Showing 2 responses by mauiaudioman

inpepinnovations,
what I was trying to say is that if you trow off the music's timing, especially like most speakers do delaying each frequency differently, you essentially destroy a portion of the musicality of the piece and make the brain work overtime trying to put things back into something intelligable. Thats how our brains are wired. Thanks for the correction.
Accurate. By accurate I mean accurate to the musical signals layed down in the original recording. Accurate to what the microphone(s) heard. Musical to one may not be musical to another. If the speaker accurately plays back the original waveform recorded in frequency, amplitude and phase, that speaker will indeed be musical. While it's not that difficult to find speakers that do the first criteria (frequency response) well, the second criteria (amplitude) is much harder (live music can have a dynamic range of 120db) The last (Phase accuracy) is also very difficult as the vast majority of speakers destroy the phase/time relationships of the original waveform. While some might argue that time/phase is not important, ask any musician if one member of the band playing eighth notes instead of quarter notes will be audible. This has been my experience over the past 30 years, YMMV